Originally Posted by
Aimless
If you have sex with a very drunk girl, can it be construed as rape after the fact because she is assumed to have been unable to consent? If you have sex with a girl thinking she's over the age of consent (because she said so, even though she isn't :o) then can it be construed as rape because she is by definition unable to consent?
I'm pretty sure there have been cases where men have been convicted of rape for having sex with drunk girls, as well as men being convicted of statutory rape for having sex with girls under the age of consent without knowing it. If their consent at the time of sex wasn't viewed as valid, then can someone argue that consent based on a lie--about religious affiliation and about intentions--was not valid?