I thought seperate but equal had been struck down by the SCOTUS 60 years ago. About time this is sorted.
Going back a few posts, Scalia is 100% correct about his interpretation of the intention of the authors of the 1868 amendment, it was intended to apply to men only. That's irrelevant though, because its been decided that women are equal to men for the last century so therefore that expands everything intended for men to men and women. The fact that 150 years ago women were owned by men doesn't mean its true now.


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