Rand had a direct role in the Brexit vote because he's British....but the only reason that became an important political vote was because PM Cameron put that up for a referendum vote. Is that populism or democracy or parliamentary discretion?
I don't know how the UK (or EU) decides voter registration, or how they fund their elections, but I do know the US is rife with politically corrupted gerrymandering. We have different systems and processes, but I'm not so sure whose process is working best for the electorate. Right now it seems the UK is doing a better job at representing its voting majority, even though plenty of academics think they're making a mistake.





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